1. Coercion makes a contract:

2. A senior public servant working in a permanent cadre is summarily dismissed from service by an order of the State Government on allegations of corruption. The government skips the mandatory department inquiry, citing that holding a full hearing would compromise state confidentiality. However, the order is passed by an Under Secretary, whereas the appointing authority for that cadre was the Governor. The officer challenges the dismissal under Article 311. Decide.

3. Identify the legal concept defined as: "A legally protected interest or claim recognized by the state, which carries a corresponding legal duty imposed on another individual, the violation of which constitutes a legal wrong."

4. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) passes a final order imposing a environmental compensation penalty of ₹50 Crores on an industrial unit for polluting a river. The industry wishes to challenge this final order. Identify the correct appellate forum and the limitation period prescribed by law.

5. An online discussion forum fails to remove a defamatory and highly offensive post targeting a public figure, despite receiving a formal, written take-down notice along with a certified copy of a court order from the affected party. The forum argues that as an 'intermediary' under Section 79 of the IT Act, 2000, it enjoys absolute immunity from any third-party content uploaded onto its platform. Decide.

6. 'A' files a suit against 'B' for recovery of money. The suit is dismissed by a Civil Judge. 'A' files a First Appeal before the District Court, which also dismisses the appeal and affirms the trial court's decree. 'A' now wishes to file a Second Appeal before the High Court under Section 100 of the CPC. Identify the absolute statutory condition precedent required to maintain a Second Appeal.

7. The Government initiates an acquisition of fertile, multi-crop agricultural land for a public-private partnership (PPP) infrastructure project under the Land Acquisition Act, 2013. The project affected families object, stating that the mandatory Social Impact Assessment (SIA) was skipped by the Collector due to the urgency of the project. What is the legal status of this acquisition?

8. 'A' enters into a contract with 'B' to supply 500 metric tons of imported Malaysian palm oil by June 15. On June 1, the Government of India issues an absolute, unexpected trade embargo banning the import of all palm oil from Malaysia due to diplomatic tensions. 'B' sues 'A' for breach of contract and demands heavy damages. 'A' raises the defense of frustration of contract. Decide.

9. During a murder investigation, the accused 'D' tells the police officer in custody: "I hid the iron rod used in the murder under the loose bricks in my backyard." The police officer goes to the backyard and retrieves the rod based on this tip-off. Under Section 23 of the BSA, 2023 (analogous to Section 27 of the old Evidence Act), what specific portion of 'D's statement is legally admissible in evidence?

10. The Central Government issues an executive notification that directly blocks a registered news journalist from publishing an investigative article detailing corruption inside a public sector bank, citing that the article would harm the bank's commercial business profile. The journalist moves the Supreme Court under Article 32, alleging a violation of Article 19(1)(a). The State argues that since the restriction targets a commercial bank's reputation, it falls within the absolute reasonable restrictions of Article 19(2). Decide.

11. The prosecution in a criminal trial seeks to compel the husband of an accused woman to stand in the witness box and give testimony regarding an observation he made at home. The defense objects, arguing that under the rules of marital privilege, a spouse can never be a competent witness against their own partner in a criminal court. Decide under the BSA, 2023.

12. A Hindu man and a Muslim woman register their marriage under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Two years later, the man passes away intestate (without leaving a will), leaving behind a substantial self-acquired estate. Identify the specific statutory law that will govern the succession and distribution of his property among his surviving family.

13. Following the landmark 2018 Amendments to the Specific Relief Act, 1963, what is the fundamental structural change regarding the court's discretion when granting a decree for the specific performance of a contract?

14. An individual creates a parody social media account mocking a well-known politician. The account uses the politician's real name, photograph, and digital signature without consent to post satirical commentary. The police arrest the creator under Section 66C of the IT Act, 2000, charging them with identity theft. The creator argues that satire does not constitute identity theft. Decide.

15. An employee of a software firm downloads a proprietary customer database from their office computer without authorization and sells it to a competitor. The company sues the employee for civil damages under the Information Technology Act, 2000. The employee argues that they cannot be sued under the IT Act because they did not hack into the system, change any code, or introduce any virus or malware. Decide.

16. A wife, shortly before her death, writes a private diary entry stating: "My husband and his parents have been constantly torturing me for a ₹5 Lakh dowry, and I fear they will poison my food." Three days later, she dies of unnatural poisoning. In the subsequent trial for dowry death, the prosecution introduces the diary entry as a dying declaration. The defense objects, noting she did not write it while on her deathbed or facing an immediate expectation of death. Decide under the BSA, 2023.

17. Under the BNSS, 2023, a Magistrate wishes to take cognizance of an offense based on a private written complaint. However, the accused resides outside the territorial jurisdiction of that Magistrate. What is the mandatory procedure the Magistrate must follow before issuing summons?

18. A claimant wins an arbitration and receives a final domestic arbitral award for ₹50 Lakhs against a respondent. The respondent refuses to pay but does not file any application under Section 34 to challenge or set aside the award. How can the claimant enforce this award?

19. Under the Code on Wages, 2019 (and the original Minimum Wages Act), if an employee works in an employment category where minimum wages have been fixed, and they work more than the standard number of hours constituting a normal working day, what is the statutory minimum rate the employer must pay for the overtime hours?

20. The Ministry of Civil Aviation passes an administrative order blacklisting a commercial pilot for life based on an anonymous complaint alleging reckless behavior. The pilot is not given a copy of the complaint, nor are they granted an opportunity to submit a written explanation before the order is issued. The Ministry argues that since the pilot holds a privilege/license rather than a constitutional right, the principles of Natural Justice do not apply. Evaluate this action.

21. A witness in a robbery trial testifies in court: "I did not see the face of the robber myself, but a security guard running out of the bank shouted to the crowd that a tall man wearing a red jacket had just stolen the money." The defense objects to this testimony as inadmissible hearsay. The prosecution argues it is admissible under the principle of Res Gestae. Decide under the BSA, 2023.

22. Under the BNSS, 2023, what is the precise statutory rule regarding the conduct of criminal trials and the pronouncement of judgments in the absolute absence of an accused person who has absconded and is evading justice?

23. A famous playback singer signs an exclusive 2-year contract with a media production house, agreeing not to sing for any other production company during this period. Six months later, the singer walks out and signs an agreement with a rival company. The original production house files a suit seeking a permanent injunction to restrain the singer from singing for anyone else. The singer argues that the court cannot grant an injunction because it would force them into idle inactivity or compel personal service. Decide.

24. An advocate is appointed as an independent Director on the Board of a public limited company. A shareholder files a complaint before the State Bar Council, alleging that by holding a director position and receiving a sitting fee, the advocate is engaged in another business/profession, violating the Bar Council of India Rules. Evaluate the validity of this complaint.

25. An artist paints a unique canvas mural in 2020. A large commercial textile company photographs the mural without permission and prints the exact design onto thousands of t-shirts for retail sale. The artist sues for copyright infringement. The company argues they are not liable because the artist never formally registered the mural with the Registrar of Copyrights. Decide.

26. 'A' sues 'B' for breach of contract, claiming damages worth ₹5 Lakhs. The suit is dismissed on merits. 'A' later files a fresh suit against 'B' claiming specific performance of the exact same contract, arguing that the relief of specific performance is a distinct cause of action. 'B' moves an application to dismiss the suit. What is the correct legal position?

27. An advocate representing a defendant in a criminal trial discovers, midway through the proceedings, that the client has hidden key documents that clearly prove their guilt. The advocate, feeling morally compromised, immediately addresses the trial judge in open court, exposes the hidden documents, and declares that they can no longer defend a dishonest person. The client files a complaint against the advocate. Evaluate the advocate's conduct.

28. A state legislature passes a law reserving 80% of public employment posts for 'local residents' to counter severe regional unemployment. The law is challenged as violating Article 16. During the pendency of the suit, Parliament passes a validating Act under Article 16(3) with retrospective effect to shield the state law. Evaluate the constitutional validity of Parliament's action.

29. A chemical manufacturing company operates with a valid 'Consent to Operate' from the State Pollution Control Board. A highly volatile toxic gas escapes from the plant due to a sudden, unpredictable earthquake, causing severe respiratory illnesses to thousands of residents in the adjoining town. The company argues it cannot be held liable because it complied with all safety regulations and the leak was caused by an unprecedented 'Act of God'. Decide.

30.

31. An online e-commerce platform lists a premium laptop for ₹1,50,000. Due to a technical glitch in their automated pricing algorithm, the price is displayed as ₹1,500 for ten minutes. 'C' purchases the laptop at this price, and the platform sends an automated order confirmation invoice. Two hours later, the platform cancels the order, citing an algorithmic error. 'C' files a complaint for "unfair trade practice" and "deficiency of service" under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Decide.

32. Under the BNS, 2023, the older offense of 'Sedition' (Section 124A of the older IPC) was completely repealed. Identify the specific new provision added to the BNS that covers acts endangering the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India, and identify its key structural differences.

33.

34. An unregistered partnership firm consisting of three partners ('A', 'B', and 'C') enters into a business contract with a wholesale distributor. The distributor breaches the contract, causing a loss of ₹10 Lakhs to the firm. 'A' files a civil suit in the name of the firm against the distributor for recovery of damages. The distributor moves an application to dismiss the suit under Section 69 of the Partnership Act. What is the outcome?

35. Under the high-liability updates introduced by the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act, what is the precise statutory rule regarding the liability of a motor vehicle owner if they permit a minor child to drive their vehicle, and that minor causes a catastrophic road accident resulting in death?

36. 'X' owns a commercial storefront and leases it to 'Y'. 'X', wanting to sell the property to a developer, hires musclemen and forcefully evicts 'Y' from the premises without following any legal process. 'Y' files a suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, for the immediate recovery of possession within 4 months of the eviction. 'X' argues that 'Y' cannot win because 'X' holds the absolute, registered legal title to the property. How should the court rule?

37. A corporate assessee incurs a massive financial expenditure to pay an out-of-court settlement fine to a foreign regulatory body for violating international data privacy laws. The company claims this payout as a business deduction under Section 37(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, arguing it was spent wholly and exclusively for the purpose of protecting its business reputation. The Assessing Officer disallows the deduction. Decide.

38. 'X' wishes to file a regular civil suit for the recovery of money based on a breach of a written contract that occurred on June 1, 2021. 'X' suffers a severe medical illness that leaves them bedridden for two years, and they finally approach an advocate to file the suit on July 1, 2025. The advocate realizes the standard 3-year limitation period has expired. Can 'X' file an application under Section 5 of the Limitation Act to condone the delay due to their severe illness?

39. 'X' loses their expensive pedigree dog and issues a public advertisement offering a reward of ₹50,000 to anyone who finds and returns the dog. 'Y', a neighborhood boy who had not seen or heard of the advertisement, finds the dog wandering in a park and returns it to 'X' out of pure kindness. The next day, 'Y' learns about the reward and demands the ₹50,000. 'X' refuses. Can 'Y' legally recover the reward?

40. State 'A' and State 'B' are involved in a boundary dispute. They sign a treaty agreeing to refer the matter to the International Court of Justice (ICJ). State 'B' later elects a new government that announces it is pulling out of the case, arguing that the ICJ has no jurisdiction because international law recognizes absolute state sovereignty. How should the ICJ proceed?

41. An aggrieved party discovers a major, patent clerical error on the face of a final judgment passed by a Civil Judge. The party realizes they missed the strict 30-day limitation deadline to file a regular First Appeal against the decree. What alternative remedy can the party seek within the same court that passed the judgment?

42. An individual utilizes deepfake artificial intelligence software to superimpose a popular actress's face onto an explicit adult video. The individual uploads this clip onto an open internet forum to tarnish her public reputation. Under the older IPC, this was pushed under standard defamation and modesty provisions. Under the updated BNS, 2023, identify the specific, enhanced provisions engineered to target this digital weapon.

43.

44. Under the provisions of the BNSS, 2023, what is the precise statutory rule and timeline regarding the deployment of 'Zero FIRs' across police stations in India?

45. An individual assessee receives a sum of ₹15 Lakhs as a genuine 'gift' from their real biological elder brother on the occasion of their wedding. The individual does not declare this sum in their income tax returns, viewing it as non-taxable. The Income Tax Department issues a notice seeking to tax this entire amount under Section 56(2)(x) as 'Income from Other Sources'. Evaluate the department's position.

46. In a corruption trial, the prosecution seeks to produce a digital WhatsApp chat log retrieved from the accused's phone. The phone was seized by the police, and the data was extracted into a hard drive. The prosecution produces the hard drive along with a certificate signed by a private forensic expert who extracted the data, but the certificate does not strictly comply with the format prescribed in the Schedule of the BSA, 2023. Is the evidence admissible?

47. Essentials of negligence include:

48. A statutory university empowers its Vice-Chancellor to suspend any student caught cheating in exams. The Vice-Chancellor, facing a heavy administrative workload, issues a formal standing order delegating this disciplinary suspension power to the President of the University Student Union. The Student Union President suspends a student. Is this delegation legally valid?

49. A police team tracking a fugitive wanted for a major corporate fraud wants to compel a private telecommunications operator to hand over the live, continuous geographic location tracking data of the fugitive's mobile phone. The police rely on general powers of data collection during active investigations. Identify the specific statutory update in the BNSS regarding digital and electronic evidence logs.

50. The President of India, acting on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, issues a proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 based on internal disturbance. Simultaneously, the President issues an order under Article 359 suspending the right to move any court for the enforcement of Articles 20, 21, and 19. Identify the constitutional infirmity in this scenario.

51. A naval vessel flying the flag of State 'A' boards and seizes a private commercial cargo ship flying the flag of State 'B' while it is navigating the High Seas. State 'A' suspects the cargo vessel is engaged in unauthorized broadcasting on the high seas targeting State 'A's population. State 'B' protests the boarding as an illegal violation of its exclusive jurisdiction. Decide under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).

52. 'A' files a suit against 'B' for recovery of immovable property in Court X. 'B' contends that Court X lacks territorial jurisdiction. The court overrules 'B's objection, tries the case on merits, and passes a decree in favor of 'A'. 'B' files an appeal challenging the decree solely on the ground of lack of territorial jurisdiction. Under what condition can the Appellate Court set aside the decree?

53. During an investigation under the BNSS, 2023, a police officer conducts a search of a premises without a warrant under Section 185. The officer fails to record the reasons for the search in writing and does not send the copies of the record to the nearest Magistrate immediately, but finds incriminating material. What is the legal status of the search and the evidence collected?

54. During the pendency of a civil suit for injunction, the Defendant 'D' willfully disobeys a temporary injunction order granted by the court under Order XXXIX Rule 1. The Plaintiff moves an application for enforcement and punishment. What immediate punitive actions can the court take under Order XXXIX Rule 2A?

55. A plaintiff wins a civil suit for the recovery of money against a defendant. The court passes a final decree. During the execution stage under Order XXI, the plaintiff discovers that the defendant has zero physical assets or bank accounts inside India, but owns several pieces of expensive personal electronic equipment inside their current residence. Can the executing court order the attachment and sale of the defendant's personal electronics?

56. The Board of Directors of Alpha Ltd. enters into a contract with Gamma Corp to purchase a luxury yacht for the personal recreation of the directors. The Object Clause of Alpha Ltd.'s Memorandum of Association (MoA) strictly limits the company's business activities to manufacturing pharmaceutical drugs. Can Alpha Ltd. be held liable for a breach of this contract if they refuse to pay?

57.

58. 'A' enters into a contract to purchase a rare, historical 15th-century manuscript from 'B'. 'B' later backs out of the deal because a foreign collector offers a higher price. 'A' files a suit for specific performance. 'B' argues that specific performance cannot be granted because the contract involves movable property, meaning 'A' must settle for standard monetary damages under Section 14. How should the court rule?

59. The prosecution in a theft trial introduces a confession made by the accused while they were inside a police station. However, the prosecution points out that a social worker was sitting inside the room when the confession was spoken, arguing that the presence of a private citizen removes the statutory bar against police confessions. Decide under the BSA, 2023.

60. An industrial buyer purchases a specific manufacturing machine from an engineering firm. The contract states: "The seller will deliver the machine to the buyer's factory on May 1, and the buyer will pay the purchase price in full on June 1." The seller fails to deliver the machine on May 1. The buyer sues for delivery, but the seller argues they have an 'Unpaid Seller's Lien' over the machine until the June 1 payment arrives. Decide.

61. A Muslim man issues a single, irrevocable pronunciamento of divorce (Talaq-e-Bain) to his wife during her period of purity (tuhr), explicitly stating that the marriage is dissolved immediately without room for reconciliation. He contends that this does not violate the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019, because it is not 'Talaq-e-Biddat' (triple talaq in one utterance). Evaluate the legal status of this divorce.

62. 'A', with the intention of causing terror among a section of people, detonates a non-lethal smoke bomb inside a crowded metro station in Delhi, causing a stampede where five people suffer grievous injuries. He is charged under Section 113 (Terrorist Act) of the BNS, 2023. 'A' argues he cannot be charged with a terrorist act as no loss of life occurred and he used a non-lethal device. Decide.

63. During a complex commercial trial before a District Judge, a critical question of law arises regarding the constitutional validity of a minor state municipal regulation. The regulation has never been interpreted or challenged before the High Court of that state or the Supreme Court. Can the District Judge refer this legal issue to the High Court for an opinion?

64. An advocate accepts a brief from a client in a complex property dispute on a contingency fee basis, signing a written agreement that they will receive 15% of the market value of the property only if the suit is successfully decreed. The suit is won, but the client refuses to pay the 15%. The advocate files a civil suit against the client for recovery of the agreed contractual amount. Evaluate the advocate's legal position.

65.

66. Under public international law, what is the precise legal distinction between the 'De Jure' recognition and 'De Facto' recognition of a newly formed state or revolutionary government?

67. 'X', a public servant, induces 'Y' to hand over property by manufacturing a false order from the state government indicating 'Y's land is being requisitioned. Under the older IPC, this was charged as cheating by personation and forgery. Under the BNS, 2023, which specific organized/severe provisions could 'X' be directly open to if this was done as part of a systematic syndicate?

68. An industrial establishment employs 350 workers. Due to a severe economic downturn and a drop in market demand, the management decides to retrench 60 workers to reduce operational costs. The management issues a 3-month notice and offers standard retrenchment compensation. However, they do not apply for or obtain any prior permission from the appropriate government. Evaluate the legality of this retrenchment.

69. 'X' visits an amusement park and decides to ride a high-speed roller coaster. Before boarding, 'X' signs a digital waiver stating: "The park is not liable for any injury caused during the ride." Due to a catastrophic failure of the braking system caused by the park's absolute failure to conduct routine weekly maintenance, 'X' suffers a severe spinal injury. The park invokes Volenti non fit injuria and the signed waiver. Decide.

70.

71. A couple married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954, experiences a severe marital breakdown. They decide to seek a divorce by mutual consent. Identify the strict statutory waiting period and timelines mandated by the Act before they can jointly move a motion to finalize their divorce decree after their initial petition is presented.

72.

73. An Indian pharmaceutical company develops a novel, highly efficient chemical synthesis process that cuts the manufacturing time of a known life-saving drug by 80%. The final drug molecule itself remains chemically identical to an existing globally patented drug. The company applies for a patent in India for this new process. A foreign patent holder opposes the application, citing Section 3(d) of the Patents Act, 1970. Decide.

74. Under the Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) Act, 2017, a registered manufacturer inadvertently claims an Input Tax Credit (ITC) using a fake invoice issued by a fraudulent supplier who never actually delivered the raw materials. The tax authorities issue a demand notice for the reversal of the ITC along with a 100% penalty. The manufacturer claims they acted in good faith and are not liable because the fraud was committed entirely by the supplier. Decide.

75. Identify the foundational legal maxim that dictates: "An act of the court shall prejudice no man." This maxim forms the structural baseline for civil court corrections, references, and the restoration of rights under both the CPC and special statutes.

76. An individual purchases a locked trunk at a public storage auction. Upon opening the trunk at home, they find a hidden velvet pouch containing rare diamond jewelry worth ₹20 Lakhs. The storage company demands the jewelry back, arguing they never intended to sell it. The individual claims ownership based on physical possession. Analyze the elements of possession.

77. During an ongoing commercial arbitration, one party moves an application before the arbitral tribunal under Section 16, arguing that the tribunal lacks jurisdiction because the parent contract was executed under duress. The tribunal evaluates the argument, rejects the objection, and rules that it holds full jurisdiction to continue the hearings. What immediate procedural remedy is available to the aggrieved party?

78. An inter-faith couple decides to solemnize their marriage under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. They submit their formal notice of intended marriage to the Marriage Officer of the district. Ten days later, a distant relative files a written objection with the Marriage Officer, arguing that the marriage should be stopped because the couple's families have not given communal consent. Analyze the powers and boundaries of the Marriage Officer in this scenario.

79. 'X' files a civil suit against 'Y' seeking a formal declaration under Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act that 'X' is the true beneficiary of a private family trust. The court examines the facts, hears both sides, and passes a formal decree declaring 'X's legal status. Evaluate the binding legal scope of this declaratory decree.

80. Deficiency in service means:

81. A wife, shortly before her death, writes a private diary entry stating: "My husband and his parents have been constantly torturing me for a ₹5 Lakh dowry, and I fear they will poison my food." Three days later, she dies of unnatural poisoning. In the subsequent trial for dowry death, the prosecution introduces the diary entry as a dying declaration. The defense objects, noting she did not write it while on her deathbed or facing an immediate expectation of death. Decide under the BSA, 2023.

82. The Supreme Court of India clarifies an interpretation of a corporate tax exemption clause in a landmark judgment. A private business entity operating in Chennai is involved in an identical tax dispute before the Madras High Court. The state tax department argues that the Supreme Court's ruling was delivered in a case originating from Delhi, meaning it does not bind a court operating in a different geographic state. Evaluate this argument.

83. 'A' has no rights and threatens to forcefully cast 'A' off the land. 'A' files a civil suit against 'B' seeking a bare permanent injunction to restrain 'B' from interfering with their peaceful possession. 'A' chooses not to ask for a declaration of ownership title, even though 'B' explicitly denies 'A's title in the written statement. Is 'A's suit maintainable?

84. A corporate debtor issues a post-dated cheque to a supplier to secure an upcoming supply of raw materials. Before the cheque's date arrives, the debtor initiates corporate insolvency proceedings, and the bank dishonors the cheque with the memo "Funds Insufficient". The supplier serves a statutory 30-day notice and files a criminal complaint under Section 138 against the company's Managing Director. The director argues they cannot be prosecuted because the cheque was for an upcoming security deposit, not a current debt. Decide.

85. A non-governmental organization (NGO) files a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in the High Court under Article 226, seeking a mandamus to compel the State Legislature to enact a specific law banning single-use plastic across the state. The State objects to the maintainability of the petition. How should the High Court rule?

86.

87. An arbitral tribunal completes its proceedings and pronounces a final arbitral award. The losing party discovers that the sole arbitrator accepted a secret luxury vacation from the winning party while the hearings were active. The losing party wants to challenge the award based on this systemic bias. Identify the correct provision and the strict statutory limitation window available to file this challenge.

88. A worker is employed in a factory where the work involves handling heavy machinery. While operating a machine, the worker suffers an injury resulting in the permanent total loss of vision in one eye. The worker was under the influence of an over-the-counter cold medication that caused drowsiness at the time of the accident. The employer denies liability under the Employee's Compensation Act, 1923, citing worker negligence. Decide.

89. A plaintiff wishes to file an appeal against a final decree passed by a District Judge. The strict statutory limitation period provided for the appeal is 30 days. The plaintiff requests their advocate to prepare the file. On the 29th day, the civil courts close for a 2-month summer vacation. The limitation period expires mid-vacation. The plaintiff files the appeal on the very first day the court re-opens. The respondent objects. Decide.

90. 'A', an 17-year-old college student, represents themselves as a 21-year-old adult and secures a personal loan of ₹1,00,000 from a private bank. 'A' spends the entire amount on a luxury holiday. When the bank sues for recovery, 'A' pleads minority. The bank demands that even if the contract is void, the minor must return the ₹1,00,000 under the doctrine of restitution. What is the correct legal position under Indian law?

91. An analytical jurist argues that a newly enacted state law is deeply immoral, unjust, and violates fundamental human rights. However, they concede that because the law was passed by a competent legislature in strict compliance with all constitutional procedures, it remains a valid law that citizens are legally bound to obey. Which school of legal jurisprudence does this jurist belong to?

92. An international commercial contract contains an arbitration clause stating that all disputes will be settled by a sole arbitrator under the rules of the International Chamber of Commerce (ICC). A major dispute arises. One party completely ignores the clause and files an original civil commercial suit before a Commercial High Court in India. The opposite party appears on day one and files an application seeking to refer the parties to arbitration under Section 8 of the Act. How must the High Court proceed?

93.

94. A municipal corporation issues a public notice inviting tenders for a city waste management contract. The criteria section states that bidders must have 5 years of operational experience. Company 'A' has only 2 years of experience but is owned by a close cousin of the Municipal Commissioner. The Commissioner twists the criteria, waves the experience requirement, and awards the contract to Company 'A'. Identify the specific administrative ground available to competing bidders to strike down this award.

95. The government acquires a plot of land in an urban area under the 2013 Act. The market value of the land is determined by the Collector to be ₹10 Lakhs. Calculate the final total compensation amount that must be awarded to the landowner, accounting for the mandatory 'Solatium' multiplier prescribed by the Act, assuming no additional structures or damages are present.

96. A minority shareholder holding 2% of the paid-up share capital in a manufacturing company files a petition before the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) alleging "Oppression and Mismanagement" under Sections 241 and 242 of the Companies Act, 2013. The company moves a preliminary application to dismiss the petition as non-maintainable. How should the NCLT rule?

97. A private citizen files a PIL in the Supreme Court alleging that a specific private hospital is charging exorbitant fees for standard cardiac surgeries, violating the fundamental right to health under Article 21. The citizen demands that the Supreme Court fix a national price cap for all private medical treatments. How should the court approach this petition?

98. The state government constructs a massive canal system. Due to unprecedented, heavy seasonal rainfall, the canal overflows and breaches its banks, flooding the adjoining agricultural lands of 'P'. 'P' sues the State for damages, invoking the rule of Strict Liability established in Rylands v. Fletcher. The State raises the defense of 'Act of God' (Vis Major). What is the likely outcome?

99. A Hindu couple gets married in 2022. In 2024, they mutually agree to divorce due to irreconcilable differences. They execute a registered mutual divorce deed before a Notary Public and a community Panchayat, explicitly waiving any future maintenance claims. One year later, the wife files a formal petition for divorce and permanent alimony in a Family Court. The husband contends the court petition is barred by estoppel and res judicata due to the registered Panchayat divorce deed. Decide.

100.