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AIBE XXI (2026) Mock Test 2

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1. Under BNS, criminal liability begins at:

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2.

Under Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), evidence must be:

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3. Charge sheet (under BNSS) filed under:

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4. Directors act as:

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5. Defamation includes:

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6.

Execution of decree is governed under:

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7.

Consent is not free when:

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8. FIR (under CrPc) is under:

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9. Under BNSS, arrest must comply with:

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10. Attempt becomes punishable when:

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11. Copyright protects:

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12. Article 32 is called:

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13. The term “usufructuary mortgage” refers to a mortgage where:

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14. Dowry death is under:

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15. Punishment for murder:

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16. Advocates are:

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17. In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that “procedure established by law” under Article 21 must be:

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18. Under BSA, electronic records require:

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19. Remand means:

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20. Corporate veil can be lifted when:

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21. Plaint can be rejected when:

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22.

Judicial review in India is primarily based on:

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23. Advocates’ fees should be:

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24. Act done in private defence is:

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25.

Consumer under Consumer Protection Act includes:

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26.

Advocate cannot:

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27. An appeal lies from:

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28.

Electronic records are:

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29.

Mehr is:

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30. Confession to police is:

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31. Talaq under Muslim law is:

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32. GST is:

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33. Abetment includes:

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34. In State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar, the Supreme Court held that classification under Article 14 must be:

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35.

Arbitration is:

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36.

Burden of proof lies on:

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37. Cognizable offence means:

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38.

Which writ is issued to produce a detained person before the court?

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39. Section 151 CPC gives power to:

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40. Insanity defense is under:

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41.

Under Indian Contract Act:

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42. Bail is rule in:

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43.

Essentials of negligence include:

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44. Burden of proof may shift when:

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45. Digital signature ensures:

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46. Hearsay evidence is generally:

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47. Which case introduced “Procedure established by law must be fair”?

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48.

Under BNSS (new criminal procedure framework replacing CrPC), arrest without warrant is generally allowed when:

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49. Jurisdiction of civil court is barred when:

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50. Rule in Rylands v. Fletcher establishes:

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51. Attempt to commit offence is punishable when:

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52. Which writ is issued against a public authority that fails to perform a statutory duty?

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53. Tax is:

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54.

A Hindu marriage is void if:

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55. Under BNSS principles, FIR must be:

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56.

Cruelty is a ground for divorce under:

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57. Investigation primarily includes:

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58.

Agreement in restraint of trade is:

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59.

FIR is registered under:

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60. In D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, the Court laid down safeguards for:

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61. Under Section 11 CPC, res judicata applies when:

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62. Abetment means:

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63. Abetment includes:

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64. Bail is:

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65. Zero FIR is:

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66. Criminal conspiracy defined in:

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67. In BNS, distinction between murder and culpable homicide depends on:

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68. The Basic Structure doctrine was laid down in:

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69. Under BSA, electronic evidence is admissible if:

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70. Temporary injunction is granted to:

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71. Defamation requires:

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72. Admission is:

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73.

Defamation is:

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74. A charge sheet is:

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75. In S.P. Gupta v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that PIL primarily expanded:

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76. An advocate’s primary duty is to:

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77. An arbitral award is:

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78. Unauthorized access to computer system is:

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79.

In Gujarat Bottling Co. Ltd. v. Coca Cola Co., the Court held that injunction depends on:

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80.

Bail is generally a:

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81.

Private defence is allowed when:

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82. Acts done in good faith under legal authority are:

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83. Mediation is:

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84. Which writ is used to restrain a lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction?

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85. Burden shifts when:

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86. Confession made under police custody:

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87. Acquittal means:

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88. Distinction between culpable homicide and murder depends on:

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89. Constructive res judicata applies when:

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90. Revision is:

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91.

Under BNS, criminal liability generally requires:

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92. Shareholders’ liability is:

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93. Environmental principle:

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94. Police custody beyond statutory limit is:

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95. Valid adoption requires:

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96. Investigation includes:

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97. A contract without lawful object is:

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98. Judicial activism in India is most closely linked with:

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99. Remedy for breach of contract includes:

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100. Cognizable offence means:

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The average score is 88%

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