1. A State Legislature enacts a law prohibiting publication of any material “likely to disturb public tranquility” without defining the expression. What is the correct legal position?

A. The law is valid as public order is a reasonable restriction
B. The law is invalid due to vagueness and excessive delegation
C. The law is valid as legislative wisdom is supreme
D. The law is saved by severability

2. Parliament restricts movement for administrative convenience. What is correct?

A. Any restriction is valid
B. Must be least intrusive and proportionate
C. Administrative convenience sufficient
D. Rights can be waived

3. Pre-constitutional law violating FRs—what happens?

A. Void ab initio
B. Remains eclipsed and revives later
C. Permanently repealed
D. Applies only to citizens

4. Amendment removes judicial review. Which doctrine applies?

A. Pith and substance
B. Basic structure
C. Waiver
D. Colourable legislation

5. Preventive detention—grounds not communicated. What is correct?

A. Not required
B. Must be communicated promptly
C. Optional
D. Advisory board only decides

6. Tax without rational classification violates:

A. Absolute equality
B. Reasonable classification principle
C. State discretion
D. Immunity of economic laws

7. Writ against private company?

A. Always maintainable
B. If public function involved
C. Never
D. Only SC

8. Ordinance issued without urgency:

A. Unlimited power
B. Cannot substitute legislation
C. No judicial review
D. Always valid

9. Right to privacy is:

A. Not fundamental
B. Part of Article 21
C. Only statutory
D. Only for citizens

10. Retrospective validation of tax law involves:

A. Basic structure
B. Waiver
C. Estoppel
D. Severability

11. Territorial jurisdiction objection raised late:

A. Suit void
B. Waived
C. Return plaint
D. Null decree

12. Setting aside ex parte decree requires:

A. Non-appearance only
B. Sufficient cause
C. Automatic setting aside
D. Not allowed

13. Omission of damages claim later:

A. Amendment barred
B. Claim barred
C. Amendment allowed
D. Both A and B

14. Res judicata applies to:

A. Final only
B. Interlocutory only
C. Both
D. Never

15. Ex parte injunction:

A. Always valid
B. Exceptional
C. Mandatory
D. Illegal

16. Appeal against rejection of plaint:

A. Section 96
B. Order 43 Rule 1
C. Section 115
D. No appeal

17. Limitation for execution:

A. No limit
B. 12 years
C. 3 years
D. 30 years

18. Decree obtained by fraud:

A. Valid
B. Voidable
C. Nullity
D. Binding

19. Grave and sudden provocation:

A. Murder
B. Culpable homicide
C. No offence
D. Hurt

20. Theft requires:

A. Physical taking
B. Dishonest intention
C. Consent irrelevant
D. Ownership irrelevant

21. Illegal gratification is:

A. Cheating
B. Breach of trust
C. Corruption
D. Extortion

22. Threat to reputation to get money:

A. Robbery
B. Extortion
C. Theft
D. Cheating

23. Common intention requires:

A. Same intention
B. Pre-arranged plan
C. Mere presence
D. Knowledge

24. Causing death by negligence:

A. Intention
B. Negligence
C. Knowledge
D. Strict liability

25. House trespass at night:

A. Criminal trespass
B. House trespass
C. Lurking house trespass
D. All

26. Cheating requires:

A. Breach of contract
B. Initial dishonest intention
C. Mere failure
D. Civil dispute

27. Preventing movement:

A. Confinement
B. Restraint
C. Assault
D. Battery

28. Mistake of fact:

A. No defence
B. Complete defence
C. Partial
D. Civil liability

29. Arrest without warrant:

A. Mandatory
B. Discretion with safeguards
C. No arrest
D. Only with warrant

30. Cognizance means:

A. FIR filing
B. Application of mind
C. Charge framing
D. Trial start

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